This post is in reference to the questions asked here: http://dilipbarad.blogspot.com/2015/09/drydens-essay-on-dramatic-poesy-short.html 1. Do you any find any difference between Aristotle's definition of tragedy and Dryden's definition of play? After Aristotle here is a person "Dryden" who giving a very well-firmed definition of a play. Obviously, it's a very large difference between Aristotle's definition of tragedy & Dryden's definition of play. Let me clarify that, Dryden is a neoclassical critic. If we look at the definition of both of them we see the difference which I mentioned below :- √ In Dryden's definition of play we can see these 3 elements. 1. Just & lively image 2. Passions & humours 3. Delight & instruction of mankind. √ If we can see Aristotle's definition of tragedy.... It's ended with the word "catharsis", whereas Dryden ended his definition with delight & instru...